NR511 Final Exam Latest Updated 2024 Questions With Detailed Answers Rated A+

NR511 Final Exam Latest Updated 2024 Questions
With Detailed Answers Rated A+

Max, age 16, comes into your office after having been in a fight and sustaining a human bite
on his fist. Your first course of action is to
A. give a tetanus injection.
B. thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound.
C. initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D. leave the wound open for drainage. - B. thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound.
Marisa, age 42, has celiac disease. She is prone to osteopenic bone disease as a result of
impaired calcium absorption because of
A. increased calcium absorption by the small intestine.
B. increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D.
C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty
acids.
D. decreased magnesium absorption.. - C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the
intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids.
Decreased bladder capacity; bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection, tumor, stones,
or irritants such as caffeine and alcohol; and central nervous system disorders or spinal
cord lesions are all contributing factors to
A. stress urinary incontinence.
B. urge urinary incontinence.
C. overflow urinary incontinence.
D. reflex urinary incontinence. - B. urge urinary incontinence.
Samuel wants his newborn son to be circumcised, but it is noted that the baby has
hypospadias. What do you tell Samuel?
A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible."
B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised."
C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is; then we can determine if your son
can be circumcised or not."
D. "Your son should not be circumcised." - D. "Your son should not be circumcised."
Which of the following would be a considered the highest risk factor for the development of
testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Caucasian race
C. HIV infection
D. Hormonal imbalance in utero - A. Cryptorchidism
Jeff, age 20, presents to the college health clinic with complaints of difficulty passing his
urine and a discharge from his penis. Upon further investigation, you note that the discharge
is urethral in origin. The most common cause of these symptoms in the young adult male
population is
A. chronic prostatitis.
B. prostatic abscess.
C. acute prostatitis.
D. prostatic hypertrophy. - C. acute prostatitis.
Bernard, age 59, presents to the emergency department with a diagnosis of priapism.
Despite application of cold compresses and pain medications, relief is unsuccessful. What is
the treatment of choice?
A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously
B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora cavernosa
C. Doxazosin 5 mg sublingually
D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans - B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora
cavernosa
Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is at
increased risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when he
becomes an adult?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Brain tumor
C. Liver cancer
D. Esophageal cancer - B. Brain tumor
Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy?
A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother
B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth
C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus
D. To help promote neurological g - B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and
vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth
What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve- root compression? A. The Apley
scratch test B. The drop arm test C. Finkelstein's test D. Spurling's maneuver - D. Spurling's
maneuver
Mr. Hughes is a 46-year-old African American man who is in your primary care office for a
physical examination. You recommend which of the following as screening for prostate
cancer?
A. A digital rectal examination (DRE)
B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older - B. None; there
is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older
Which of the following individuals most likely will have a false-negative reaction to the
Mantoux test?
A. Marvin, age 57
B. Jane, who is on a short course of corticosteroid therapy for an acute exacerbation of
asthma
C. Jerry, who has lymphoid leukemia
D. Mary, who recently was exposed to someone coughing - C. Jerry, who has lymphoid
leukemia
Specific conditions demonstrate fluid in the scrotum on transillumination. These include
A. testicular cancer.
B. a varicocele.
C. a hydrocele.
D. testicular torsion. - C. a hydrocele.
You are referring a 73- year- old client for management of his prostate cancer with
hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of
androgen ablation by
A. blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). -
blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
Samuel, a 62- year- old who takes many different medications, is complaining of erectile
dysfunction. The nurse practitioner knows that several medications could be the cause of
Samuel's problem. Which of his medications is most likely the culprit?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Reserpine (Serpasil)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Isosorbide (Imdur) - B. Reserpine (Serpasil)
Milton, a 72- year- old unmarried, sexually active white man, presents to your clinic with
complaints of hesitancy, urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the nurse
practitioner suspects benign prostatic hypertrophy, what else should the differential
diagnosis list include?
A. Antihistamine use
B. Urethral stricture
C. Detrusor hyperreflexia
D. Renal calculi - B. Urethral stricture
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common finding as men age. Classically, this condition
may begin with difficulty initiating the urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency, postvoid dribbling,
urinary frequency, nocturia, urinary retention, sensation of a full bladder immediately after
voiding, and incontinence. These preceding symptoms would also cause the nurse
practitioner to consider what other condition as a differential diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Testicular cancer
C. Cancer of the prostate
D. Balanitis - C. Cancer of the prostate