NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam 2024–Pre-Predictor Test Bank (WITH Complete Solutions &Rationales

NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam
2022–Pre-Predictor Test Bank (WITH
Complete Solutions &Rationales
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The
NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?
a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar virus.
Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following incubation
period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular
or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made
using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the
CBC.
2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3
days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract
infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate medication to
treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7-
10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
3) Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
c. Topical tetracycline
d. Isotretinoin)
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with severe
inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the patient. A woman
of childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is
teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of the
teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
4) An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should
be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy a.
Throughout the week of placebo pil