Barkley Post Test A Basic Exam Questions and Answers 2024/2025 Verified Answers

Barkley Post Test A Basic Exam
Questions and Answers
2024/2025 Verified Answers
You administer a serological test on a patient with
hepatitis. Checking over the results, you discover the
patient's serology to be as follows: HbsAg; Anti-Hbc;
Anti-Hbe; IgM; IgG. What is
the diagnosis?
A. Acute hepatitis B
B. Chronic hepatitis B
C. Acute hepatitis A
D. Recovered hepatitis B
B. The serology results indicating the presence of HbsAg,
Anti-Hbc, Anti-Hbe, IgM, and IgG signifies chronic
hepatitis B. An acute hepatitis A serology result would
indicate Anti-HAV, IgM. Recovered hepatitis B results are
Anti-HBc, Anti-HBsAg. Acute hepatitis B results are
HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti-HBc, IgM.
A nurse accidentally sticks herself with a needle used on
a patient with non-A, non-B hepatitis. She received her
hepatitis B vaccine 2 years ago. What is the next step
she should take?
A. Draw baseline labs for herself and the patient.
B. Receive intravenous IgG.
C. Check the patient's blood for a hepatitis screen.
D. Receive an updated hepatitis B vaccine.
A. As with any stick involving blood, the initial action is to
draw baseline labs on both the nurse practitioner (NP)
herself and the patient and then form a treatment plan if
needed. Intravenous IgG is not indicated in the treatment
or prevention of any type of hepatitis. Non-A, non-B
hepatitis was the previously used term for hepatitis C, so
a second hepatitis B vaccination will not prevent the
possible infection the NP may have. Both the patient and
the NP should be screened for hepatitis, rather than just
the patient, as the NP is also at risk.
You are working in the emergency department when a
patient arrives after an overdose of diazepam pills. She
has slightly slurred speech and states, "I lost count of
how many pills I took." What is the first step you would
take in care of this patient?
A Naloxone intravenously
B Charcoal followed by ipecac 30 centimeters orally
Item
C Flumazenil intravenously
D Respiratory and blood pressure support
D. The first step in treating benzodiazepine overdose is to
monitor blood pressure and give respiratory support.
Although flumazenil intravenously (IV) is recommended
for treating benzodiazepine overdoses, it is not the firstline treatment because risks (e.g., withdrawal, seizures)
may outweigh benefits. Charcoal and ipecac, no matter
which agent comes first, are not recommended as firstline measures for gastrointestinal decontamination
management in benzodiazepine overdose, as this may
lead to aspiration in this patient and should occur only
after respiratory support has been established.
Intravenous naloxone is recommended for narcotic
toxicity, such as the kind caused by codeine, heroin,
morphine, or opium.
A 54-year-old former professional athlete is being
screened for hypertension, a condition which runs in his
family. Which of the following findings is not consistent
with a diagnosis of hypertension?
A. Epistaxis
B. A suboccipital headache
C. Blurred vision
D. An S3 heart sound
D. An S4 heart sound, not an S3 heart sound, is a finding
of hypertension. A suboccipital headache, blurred vision,
and epistaxis are all findings indicative of hypertension.
A deficiency of which of the following blood
components causes pernicious anemia?
A. Clotting factor III
B. Factor VII
C. Prothrombin
d. Intrinsic factor
A deficiency of intrinsic factor interferes with the body's
ability to absorb vitamin B12, thereby causing pernicious
anemia. Prothrombin and clotting factor II are both
names for the same vitamin K-dependent proenzyme
which assists in blood coagulation cascade. A lack of
sufficient prothrombin causes hypoprothrombinemia,
not pernicious anemia. Hemophilia, not pernicious
anemia, is caused by a genetic condition expressed by
the deficiency of factor VII.
In addition to infection by Helicobacter pylori, peptic
ulcers may also arise from regular use of certain
medications and other conditions. In which of the
following populations of patients is prophylactic
therapy for gastric ulcers not indicated?
A. Patients taking tricyclic antidepressants long term
B. Patients taking moderate nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs long term
C. Patients taking glucocorticoids long term
D. Patients taking aspirin long term
The use of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) has not been
reported to induce ulcers. TCAs may actually be used as
treatment for ulcers in certain patients. Glucocorticoids,
NSAIDs, and aspirin can induce ulcers in patients who
take these medications long term.
Which of the following overdoses would the nurse
practitioner expect to present with more sedative signs
and symptoms as opposed to an elevated tachycardic
presentation?
A.Crack
B.Cocaine
C.Amphetamines
D.Opioids
D. Of the choices, opioids are the only narcotic that
would present with sedative signs. Amphetamines,
cocaine, and crack are all stimulants, and overdoses of
these substances may present with increased blood
pressure, numbness, or a seizure.
Which of the following is not a major cause of death of
adults in their 30s?
A. Congenital malformations
B. Cancer
C. Suicide
D. Unintentional injuries
A. Congenital malformations are a leading cause of death
of children aged 1-9 years, but not adults in their 30s.
The leading causes of death for adults aged 25-44 years
are unintentional injuries, cancer, suicide, heart disease,
and homicide.
When should a female patient first receive a cytology
with HPV co-test?
A. At age 25 years
B. At age 29 years
C. At age 30 years
D. At age 21 years
C. According to multiple health care bodies, women
should first receive a cytology with HPV co-test at age 30
years; these tests should be repeated every 5 years until
65 years of age. A conventional or liquid-based cytology
should be administered every 3 21 to 29 years of age.
Annual chlamydia screenings are recommended for
sexually years from active women younger than 25 years
of age and may be administered alongside cervical
cancer screenings.
A patient recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is
started on a four-drug regimen, consisting of isoniazid,
rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. If the patient's
TB isolate proves to be fully susceptible, which drug
should be discontinued first?
A. Ethambutol
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampin
A. Ethambutol should be discontinued early into
treatment of tuberculosis (TB) if the patient's TB isolate
turns out to be susceptible to drug therapy.
Pyrazinamide is traditionally discontinued after 2 months
of treatment, whereas rifampin and isoniazid are used
throughout all 6 months of standard therapy.
Which of these statements is true regarding chronic
myelogenous leukemia?
A. The condition is most common in people aged 40
years and older.
B. The condition is the most common leukemia in
adults.
C. The condition has a median survival rate of 10 years.
D. The condition is associated with Reed-Sternberg
cells.
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia, or chronic myeloid
leukemia (CML), is most common in people aged 40 years
and older. CML is associated with the Philadelphia
chromosome whereas Reed-Sternberg cells are
associated with Hodgkin's disease. Chronic lymphocytic
leukemia, the most common form of leukemia in adults
in Western countries, has a median survival rate of 10
years in its earliest stages; although CML once had a
median survival rate of 4 years, recent innovations in
drug treatment have resulted in a greater rate of
survival, with a median survival rate of at least 5 years.